So, if I understand you correctly, a voter should be able to vote even if he doesn't have a legal claim to the residence he is a registered voter in? They can still register and vote wherever it is they are residing now. Or, in Michigan, they have a law that you can vote in the district you were last registered in if you have moved within 60 days of the election. You make it sound like they will not get to vote at all. They should not get to claim residency and voting rights from a property they defaulted on and have not resided in over the 60 days before the election. Is the argument that it is disproportionately blacks a fact? Or is it conjecture to throw up a poor them argument? It sounds more like it is disproportionately people that got loans they shouldn't have gotten in the first place. God forbid people actually have to take responsibility for their decisions in life instead of whining about a voting issue that is non existent. Nobody told you to get a house you couldn't afford and nobody is telling you that you can't vote. What they are telling you is you have to follow a set of rules just like every other voter.







